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Let xij be the currency i exchanged into currency j (measured
in denomination of i), and yi be the final holding of currency
i (measured in currency's own denomination)
Max 1.0y1 + 1.6785y2 + .1840y3 + .6211y4 + .0085y5
st
y1 = 2.0 + 1.665x21 + .1823x31 + .6149x41 + .00847x51
- x12 - x13 - x14 -x15
y2 = 5.0 + .591x12 + .1095x32 + .3694x42 + .005093x52
- x21 - x23 - x24 - x25
y3 = 0.0 + 5.385x13 + 9.12x23 + 3.351x43 + .0465x53
- x31 - x32 - x34 - x35
y4 = 3.0 + 1.594x14 + 2.607x24 + .2965x34 + .01379x54
- x41 - x42 - x43 - x45
Y5 = 0.0 + 116.3x15 + 193.1x25 + 21.11x35 + 72.14x45
- x51 - x52 - x53 - x54
y1 >= 0.0
y2 >= 0.0
y3 >= 7.0
y4 >= 0.0
y5 >= 1040.0
Notes on the formulation
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The objective function is based on the dollar value of each currency calculated
as the average of bid and ask prices.
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Final holding of each currency, say pounds, is beginning excess pounds
plus the sum of all other currencies exchanged into pounds (converted
into pounds multiplying by the exchange rate) minus amounts of pounds used
to buy other currencies. etc.
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Finally we require that the final holdings of each currency satisfy the
deficiencies of various currencies.
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The statement is correct. OV1 represents the best combination
of the currencies to hold if no particular cash needs were present. Therefore
maximizing OV2 (the value of the best combination after meeting
the requirements) is tantamount to deviating from OV1 as little
as possible, or minimizing OV1-OV2.
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a) If you could trade Francs to Marks and back to Francs and end up with
more Francs, you coul do this cycle using the increased Franc holding again,
ending up with even more Francs. This cycle could be repeated again and
again without bound, increasing the franc holding at each step.
In currency exchage jargon this is called arbitrage. The solution
of the linear program would be unbounded.
b) If they stood pat, their current holding of 2M Dollars plus 5M Pounds
and plus 3M Marks would be worth 12.2558M Dollars, while their best attainable
value is 12.261M Dollars as given in Exhibit 4. Therefore the statement
is false.
c)This is also false. Compared to the worst solution which has a value
of 10.164M Dollars, the best solution (OV=12.184M) represents a 2M Dollar
difference. Furthermore even when the % differences are small, they may
represent substantial amounts-- a mere 1% of 12 million Dollars is $120,000!
d) the falsity of this statement is obvious from the comparison
of Exhibit 1 (representing a value of 12.2558) with exhibit 4 representing
a value
of 12.261. Currencies may be exchanged profitably regardless of the cash
needs of various denominations. Thus the entire set of opportunities must
be kept open..
[Any questions?]