RE: Value-form theories (17-01-2000) 1. LABOUR AND SURPLUS-VALUE Labour is the only one source of value added. Jerry Levy in his 2067 is right that (in VFS 69-70) this is arrived at by process of elimination. Then Jerry quests about the connection (in VFS) between surplus-value and surplus labour. My answer would be: S = ml-wl (and -- forgetting about interest and rent -- profit R = ml-wl). `Eliptically', but perhaps also when adressing an audience of labour unionists (below more on this), I might say that socially profit is determined by surplus labour, as it is `casually'. However, in theoretical debate I would refrain from saying that as it risks being read in a labour-embodied way (though, I assume, not by you Jerry). The point is that there is no sound measure for the `eliptic' statement. One cannot add up labour and machines. Reading determination from right to left (as always in my equations unless stated otherwise): (1) pq = dK + mL (2) R = pq - dK - wL [where pq = value product (price times quantity); dK = means of production; R = profit] (1) and (2) are results of the labour process together with the sale of commodities (pq). >From (1) and (2) it can be DEDUCED that: (3) R = mL - wL >From this deduction we may infer: well, if some labour is paid for (wL) the remainder must be surplus-labour. OK. You can do that in the aggregate and also for one company etc. (though THEN there is no apriori reason for ending up with equal rates of profit). 3. ABSTRACT LABOUR AND VFT Paul Cockshott (2085) writes that the formula Y=mL `is vacuous and of no scientific value'; Fred Moseley (2163) uses the phrase 'tautology'. I contest that. First, it is the proposition of a social labour theory of value: Y is determined by abstract labour (mL) and abstract labour only. Of course, if your point of departure is an LTV anyway then this may not be very telling for you (but the vast majority of today's economists do not take that stand; for them it is worth telling - - is is also worth telling for LTV adherents who believe that only there own particular position within LTV's is an LTV). Second, it says something about the organisation of capitalist society. m and L belong together, their divorce makes no sense in capitalism (therefore the stress over and again: Abstract labour = mL). Nevertheless, MERELY for clarification, I could give the divorce a intuitive try (also for the sake of clarifying my critique of a labour embodied LTV -- which I presume is your position): (a) By itself L, as measured in time, is not homogenous (it is an abstract abstraction, in as much as the UK production of apples is -- at least if you express that in kilogramms/stones/tons). Labour and apples are each very different, nevertheless in the usual statistics one does the addition. Fine. No problem if you do that for the year (e.g.). The problem is if, in a dynamic society, you do that over the years. 'Apples' today have not the same quality as 'apples' twenty years ago (of course this is a well known problem for the construction of index numbers). The same applies to L (labour time). I agree with Chris (e.g. his ....) that labour time is problematical, and that time is not an apriori constant, at least not in the face of production. "Physical labour productivity" changes over time. We have no adequate measure for physical labour productivity, unless in ultra simple stories. Therefore, also, it is highly problematical to say (Paul C., Fred Mosley) that (necessary) labour time predicts/explains prices (it is also problematical for other reasons). (b) m is the value productivity of "concrete" labour (L); where L is arrived at by the abstract abstraction refered to. If physical productivity change is reflected in prices (which I take to be the 'normal' case - inflation and deflation then is 'abnormal'), then m is constant. So far the intuitive try of divorce between m and L. In Y = mL, Y has a value dimension, i.e. a monetary dimension (e.g. $). Similarly mL (abstract labour) has that monetary dimension: L is brought under the dimension of value, in this case $. It is this conceptualisation of connection that is of primary concern for VFT. [I agree with Chris Arthur [2074] that labour does *not* have a value- form. It is, as abstract labour, brought under the value-form.] For a company prices are not of direct interest (only of indirect interest). Nor are use-value qualities and quantities of direct interest (only indirectly). What matters is p times q (of course this is the non-ludecrous part of conventional micro-economics teaching on elasticities). Similarly the use-value doing of labour is not of primary interest for a company (i): the value doing is, i.e. (mL)(i). [where i is a subscript] Indeed effectively the quantity of mL(i) can only be measured in the market: pq = dK + mL [all for company i; and where dK stands for means of production]. Nevertheless the production process is governed by the precommensuration mL (see VFS ch 1). Or, as Marx would say, the capitalist, at that stage, can do no more than stick price tickets. I would think, Paul, that ex-ante you cannot get around these price tickets, unless, like Fred, you predefine labour as socially necessary labour, i.e. tickets = sales. Capitalist would love that. (Dont tell me that this is what Marx does in Capital Vol I - of course he excludes problems there, and rightfully so from the point of view of his method). Fred, I have indicated how one gets to (mL). My hunch is that this does not satisfy you since I rely on the market. I, for my part, would like to know how you get to your L (see also Riccardo Bellofiore's 2174). As I explained in my 1993 paper (ed Moseley, esp page 97-98), in order to get to your and Marx's reduction coefficients (reducing skill and intensity to `simple labour') you do need the market. If you assume simple labour this is just neglecting the problem (two hungry economist in the desert, lets assume we have bacon and eggs). Instead of my explication above, the answer to the question of how I get to my mL could have been, if I adopted your proceeding: I assume mL. You would not be happy with that (rightfully), for the same reason I am not happy with you just assuming L. So tell. At this point I am not so much interested in what Marx does, I am interested in your view. (You may guess that I am also not happy with the second 'given' and the assumption about the determination of m by the value of gold. I propose we reserve that discussion for some other time.) (By the way Fred, if in your P = mL the L includes past labour then I wonder how the issue is going to be tackled empirically. Anyway you agree to discuss rather Y = mL.) 3. PRICES AND LABOUR-TIME Paul Cockshott (2085) doubts my thesis (in 2062) that the development of a price theory was not Marx's concern. I am puzzeled why so as to counter my thesis he takes recourse to the manuscript of an adress (speech) by Marx to the first International -- posthumously edited as `Wage, price and profit'. (At risk of getting involved in a detailed discussion on this pamphlet -- which I would prefer not to -- I should like to remind the particular context of this adress, namely countering the thesis of Weston that prices are determined by wages, and that therefore wage increase does not help. Marx's general focus then is to bring to the fore that generally wage increase results in profit decrease. In this context, and in the face of the audience, I have no quarrels with the passages you cite.) 4. ABSTRACTION AND THE ABSTRACTION OF 'ABSTRACT LABOUR' In reply to Nicola Taylor's 2125 (reply in part), Hegelian logic for me is primarily a device for systematic conceptualisation of the object of enquiry. I dont think (now) Marx departs from that. Both 'idealist' and materialist' science are one sided, therefore non-dialectical. I believe some of Hegel's writings are at times non-dialectical in that respect. I think Marx's Capital is dialectical in this respect. As you can see in VFS I and we completely agree that 'abstract labour' is an abstraction in practice or an actual abstraction. We take distance from the term `real abstraction' (p.64 where there is also a ref. to Marx) to the extent that this term might suggest that abstract abstractions (see above) are unreal: they are real. Of course now we get to `what is real'. I cannot reply to that brief. But a related example may help. I dont know if you 'really' belief in God or Angels. I dont. Nevertheless, in our culture they are real. The point is the force of human language. It is impossible for us to think angels away. Even stronger, even if you dont belief in angels, you probably have an image of them! We cannot think away ideological distortions, although we can criticise or try to critique them. 5. SUBSTANCE I think I wrote in my 1993 chapter refered to by Nicola in her 2125 that in Marx's first chapter of Capital I the METAPHORE of substance somewhat took over the presentation. This gave rise to labour-embodied interpretations of Marx. In fact I am even more convinced now than at the time that the grounds for that interpretation are rather loose. 6. STEEDMAN & CAPITAL I/III I think that in VFS we did take distance from Steedman. Even if we wrote that we take the Steedman critique of labour embodied theory seriously (p.54) we wrote on the same page: `Because [in these approaches] money is incorporated only -- if at all -- as an afterthought ... such approaches are forced to theorise exchange as an "as if" process ...' (I agree with Chris's 2167; Nicky (re your 2187) I did not think you put us in the Steedman camp, that impression rather occured via the way Paul C. (2130) responded to you; BTW VFS was not a response to Steedman.) Paul (re your 2130), if you accept Marx's Capital I but not Capital III, then I suppose that in the face of Marx's method (from abstract and simple to concrete and complex) you have quite some work of reconstruction to do so as to arrive at grasping concrete reality. Perhaps there is a correlation between market prices and labour time, but untill you have developed that theory I take that as accidental. 7. QUANTIFICATION If for Fred Mosely (re his 2163) in his Y = ml = wl + S S = ml - wl