I'm hastily catching up on OPE: Gil replied (in #930) to a comment by Paul C that > >More abstractly, given a large set of industries with random > distributions of > >organic compositions of capital - following *some appropriate Gaussian > >distribution* > (emphasis added) Is there any reason to think that the distribution of industry OCC's (or of firm ones, for that matter) would be Gaussian? Haste means I don't have time to look in Farjoun and Machover, but I don't recall them discussing this point: has anyone else? If I had to give a guess off the top of my head, I'd predict some skewed distribution. Julian
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