On Sat, 17 Feb 2001, Drewk wrote: > In reply to Rakesh's OPE-L 4922. > > Fred claims that, according to his interpretation of Marx, a > change in technology will ALWAYS lead to a change in production > prices. I want to *test* that claim. (emphasis added) Andrew, you are right about this point. Changes in productivity do not ALWAYS lead to changes in the prices of production, because changes in productivity in one sector of the economy may be offset by changes in other sectors of the economy. I overlooked this possibility in my earlier formulations. However, this does not affect my main point, which is that all changes in prices of production are ultimately due changes in the productivity of labor, or changes in the value of commodities. This correction affects the "if" clause of my previous formulation, but not the "only if " clause. In other words, a change in the productivity of labor is a NECESSARY CONDITION for changes in prices of production, but is NOT a SUFFICIENT CONDITION for changes in prices of production. But this correction does not affect my critique of your interpretation of prices of production, because this critique has to do with whether or not changes in productivity are a NECESSARY CONDITION for changes in prices of production. In other words, prices of production cannot change as long as the productivity of labor remain constant, which contradicts your interpretation in which prices of production change even though the productivity of labor remains constant. Thanks for the continuing discussion. Comradely, Fred
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