From: Paul Cockshott (wpc@DCS.GLA.AC.UK)
Date: Thu Oct 06 2005 - 06:00:09 EDT
Ajit _____________ May be I don't understand your point. But I don't see any problem here. All other inputs are bought in the market by the bean producr and so there is no question of imputation here. They cost what they cost. If those producers have used beans in their production, they measured its cost by the price they paid for it. What is the problem here? I don't see any problem here. In any case, remember that the bean problem arise because the proportion of beans as inputs in the production of beans is unusually high. Let say, if the normal rate of profits is 10%, then if it takes 100 units of beans as input to produce 110 units of beans, then you get into the bean problem. Cheers, ajit sinha ----------- I think the issue is that there might be an indirect feedback relationship here. Suppose commodity A is non basic. It uses commodity B in its input but B is also non basic, and B uses commodity A in its own production In this case B has to purchase A at real not imputed cost __________________________________ Yahoo! Mail - PC Magazine Editors' Choice 2005 http://mail.yahoo.com
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