From: dogangoecmen@aol.com
Date: Sat Apr 05 2008 - 03:58:12 EDT
Paul,
this is very well explained and documented in the Marxist literature.
Commodity production is something that does not come into existence with capitalism.
With capitalism it becomes the dominating form of production as Engels pointed out.
Your example of Aristotle strikes me in the light of the debate we are having on dialectics.
Aristotle could see the difference between use-value and exchange-value above all because
he was one of the greatest dialecticians: use-value (quality) and exchange-value (quantity)
and their contradictory unity (totality).
Dogan
-----Ursprüngliche Mitteilung-----
Von: Paul Cockshott <wpc@dcs.gla.ac.uk>
An: Outline on Political Economy mailing list <ope@lists.csuchico.edu>
Verschickt: Sa., 5. Apr. 2008, 0:04
Thema: RE: [OPE] Fwd: How to read Capital
The point is that commodity production came thousands of years before
capitalism.
Aristotle could write about it and point out the contradiction between use and
exchange value.
This contradiction could not itself thus be the genesis of capitalism or
capitalism would
have existed in ancient Greece.
Paul Cockshott
Dept of Computing Science
University of Glasgow
+44 141 330 1629
www.dcs.gla.ac.uk/~wpc/reports/
-----Original Message-----
From: ope-bounces@lists.csuchico.edu on behalf of dogangoecmen@aol.com
Sent: Fri 4/4/2008 1:02 PM
To: ope@lists.csuchico.edu
Subject: Re: [OPE] Fwd: How to read Capital
All that I said was that all contradictions in capitalist society can be
deduced from the contradiction between use-value and exchange-value.
My reference to the separation of labourers from their means of production was
referring to the genesis of capitalism. It is the precondition of production of
goods as commodity. Here I am entirely in line with Smith and Marx.
You opposed to that but up tu now I could not see any argument. That is all I
can say. I have to stop here.
Dogan
-----Ursprüngliche Mitteilung-----
Von: Paul Cockshott <wpc@dcs.gla.ac.uk>
An: Outline on Political Economy mailing list <ope@lists.csuchico.edu>
Verschickt: Fr., 4. Apr. 2008, 13:17
Thema: RE: [OPE] Fwd: How to read Capital
Paul
"My view is that the social division of labour involves a situation where
different people work for substantial periods on different tasks and become
skilled in these: weavers, potters, carpenters etc as such it predates the
separation of labour from the means of production."
Dogan
This is usually described as technical division of labour rather than
social division labour.
Paul in reply
In that case what is your social division of labour? The separation
of the producers from the means of production is not a division
of labour. The division of society into wage labourers and
capitalists is not a social division of labour, since the point being
a capitalist is not to labour yourself but get others to do it for
you.
Paul
"A social division of labour can exist under multiple different relations
of prodution, some of which are commodity producing ones and some not."
Dogan
Fine, but we are talking about modern form of social division of labour.
Paul in reply
Since when? We were originally talking about your dialectical
derivation
of capitalist social relations from the usevalue exchange value
distinction.
You went from that to say that commodity production implied the
social
division of labour and thus the separation of the producers from the
means of production.
When I say that this was not necessarily the case historically, you
then
say that you are talking about modern capitalist social division of
labour.
But this modern capitalist social division of labour was what you
were
initially trying to infer from the commodity. This is what I mean by
sleight
of hand in dialectical argument, a conclusion is drawn that is not
supported
by the stated premises, but can only be supported by unstated
premises.
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