> Because the history of capitalism is so disagreeable it is hard to make the distinction unless one
> has a clear concept of imperialism, ie the world after the 1890's compared to the earlier period
> where there was still parts of the world to be shared out. Now it is all about redistributiion,
> outright, inescapable, confrontation, stealing from others by all means, and within and between
> every imperialist state we can see this in the most explicit forms.
Hi Paul B (and David Y):
Is that what it is "all about" now? Since you make a distinction between plunder and exploitation,
you seem to be claiming that it's _not at all_ about exploitation anymore! Perhaps that was
simply poor sentence construction on your part? In any event, I think it is self-evident that
other processes besides plunder have contributed to capitalist accumulation and the growth of
the economies of imperialist nations: is there no role - from your perspective - in recent
capitalist history of technological change and relative surplus value?
Marxians (and, I think Marx) tended to conceive of plunder as playing a more central
role in the original (primitive) accumulation of capital than during 'late capitalism'. So, it seems
there is a difference in perception about this question. How would you suggest we go
about looking at the empirical/historical evidence for the different positions?
In solidarity, Jerry
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Received on Fri Jan 23 17:28:14 2009
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