Re: [OPE] Brecht and value-form theory

Hi Phil

> The _distinction_ is not dissolved by the non-deviation of prices from
> values. A price is a sum of money. The intrinsic value of that sum of
> money can equal the intrinsic value of the commodity it buys while the
> distinction stands.

You have a conceptual distinction, but not a quantitative difference.
Without a quantitative difference between labor-values and prices I do
not understand how it is possible for the law of value to operate as a
causal mechanism (e.g., to allocate social labor over time).

Rubin, for example, is very clear on this.

> Some single systems do maintain the deviation of prices and values, e.g.
> TSSI, SSSI.

But do they maintain the conceptual distinction also? Not if they
*define* labor-values in terms of monetary phenomena (e.g., a MELT).

I believe the LTV requires both a conceptual distinction and a
quantitative difference between labor-values and monetary phenomena.

Best wishes,
-Ian.
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Received on Thu Mar 19 16:50:47 2009