Oddly, Krugman says that this is a "straight forward exercise" (!)
and he _only_ compares the decline in industrial production in the
early years of the Great Depression to the early period of the
"Great Recession" (from the end of 2007 until now). This is just
SO weird - why, for comparative purposes, look ONLY at the
stats on industrial production?
In solidarity, Jerry
http://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2009/03/20/the-great-recession-versus-the-great-depression/
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Received on Sun Mar 22 10:41:21 2009
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