I, Paul Cockshott said on Friday, April 19, in[OPE-L:1824]said,
Usurers capital under feudalism would, on your definition above, be =
dominant. =20
2. Chai-on replied
Yes, it would if the surplus appropriated by the feudal lords were =
absorbed
by the usurers, if the feudal tributes were transferred to the hands of =
the
usurers. It was one of the reasons the feudal mode of production was to =
be
in the wane. With the collapse of the feudal mode, however, the usuery =
was
also to collapse because the latter relied upon the former. =20
3. Paul asks again:
What percentage of the surplus do usurers need to appropriate to be =
defined=20
as the dominant class, 1%, 5%, 50%?
Paul Cockshott
4. Chai-on replies,
None of the percentages would be relevant to our question. If the =
usurers appropriation of the surplus that were originally in the hands =
of the feudal lords began to outweigh the possibility of redemption. =
(the usurers appropriation began to accelerate irreversibly), we could =
say it became dominant. =20
With regards,
Chai-on: conlee@chonnam.chonnam.ac.kr
=20
wpc@cs.strath.ac.uk
http://www.cs.strath.ac.uk/CS/Biog/wpc/index.html