A reply to Jerry's ope-l 5188.
He wrote: "how do you square your interpretation with the 'definitive'
translation by Riccardo that what has been rendered into English as
'realization' [of value] is more accurately translated as 'actualization' [of
value]?"
Did Riccardo himself actually claim to have undertaken a *translation*? In
any case, I have extremely strong doubts about this. I would like to see
Riccardo's evidence. The German text can prove very useful here, since that
language has two different words for what are, in English, the philosophic and
commercial meanings of the word "realization."
As for the rest, including Mike Williams' post, I'll respond after Mike
Lebowitz gets back and posts a reply.
Andrew Kliman