[OPE-L:2081] Why is Malthus correct on unproductive labor, according to Marx?

From: Paul Zarembka (zarembka@acsu.buffalo.edu)
Date: Mon Jan 10 2000 - 23:41:25 EST

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Theories of Surplus Value, I, Chp. IV.3 (p. 157 Progress) has Marx saying
   "this critical differentiation between productive and unproductive
labor remains
    the basis of all bourgeois political economy".
Why does Marx say that? Why is it crucial to bourgeois political economy?
And, whatever our own differences on this issue, is it not the case the
Marx himself thought that the differentiation plays a role in his, not
just bourgeois, political economy?

If anyone has an answer, I'd appreciate the benefit of their insight.
Thanks, Paul

Paul Zarembka, supporting RESEARCH IN POLITICAL ECONOMY, web site
******************** http://ourworld.compuserve.com/homepages/PZarembka

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