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If one posing the question this way, the Soviet Union would not be a class
society because workers 1) did "own" the means of production (at least
seemingly, at least "de jure"), but 2) surely did not "control" the means
of production. Paul
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Paul Zarembka, supporting RESEARCH IN POLITICAL ECONOMY
******************** http://ourworld.compuserve.com/homepages/PZarembka
Gerald Levy <glevy@PRATT.EDU> said, on 03/18/00 at 11:52 AM:
>I don't think that the issue is whether class is defined in terms of
>ownership *or* control (since no one has suggested that class can be
>defined _only_ in terms of ownership of the means of production) but
>whether it is to be defined in terms of ownership *and* control (or not).
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