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Thanks to Andrew for his (3522), in response to my (3458).
Andrew seems to be saying the following (please of course correct me if I
am wrong):
1. If the value of the means of production (e.g. cotton) falls while a
given batch of cotton is in the process of production into yarn, then the
value transferred from the cotton to the yarn WILL NOT CHANGE, because the
value transferred in this case is determined by the value of the cotton
WHEN IT ENTERS PRODUCTION.
2. On the other hand, if another batch of yarn is already on the market
(not yet sold) at the time when value of cotton falls, then the value
transferred from the cotton to the yarn WILL CHANGE, because the value
transferred in this case is determined by the CURRENT ("reproduction")
value of cotton.
But, Andrew, why are there different methods of determination of the value
transferred in these two cases, one batch in the process of production and
the other batch already produced and on the market? It seems to me that
the value transferred in both cases should be determined in the same way,
either when the means of production enter production or by the current
reproduction costs, not one method of determination in one case and
another method of determination in the other case.
Furthermore, once the yarn from batch #1 moves out onto the market, then
these two methods of determination of the value transferred would seem to
result in two different values of yarn on the market. The yarn from
batch #1 will have a higher value transferred component and therefore a
higher value than the yarn in batch #2. But this contradicts the general
principle that each type of commodity will have a single value.
So, Andrew, would you please explain this apparent contradiction in your
interpretation? Thanks very much.
Comradely,
Fred
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