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Re Fred's 3698
In other words, Marx was saying
>that the fact that the prices of production of the means of production are
>not equal to their values does not affect the cost price of these
>commodities, because this cost price is taken as given, both in the
>determination of both the value and in the determination of the price of
>production of these commodities.
Fred, I truly don't understand this interpretation of Capital 3 p.265. Marx
is clearly saying that he has to modify the cost price as it is given in
the tableau. You argue that he is not saying that cost price has to be
modified.
>"It is quite possible, accordingly, for the cost price to diverge from the
>value sum of the elements of which this component of the price of
>production is composed, even in the case of commodities that are produced
>by capitals of average composition..."
Cmon Fred, as I already showed, you are leaving out the exact words where
marx clearly differentiates the price paid for the means of production from
the value of those means as consumed in the commodity. This whole paragraph
on. p.309 needs to be read.
Yours, Rakesh
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