In [OPE-L:4431] Duncan wrote: > Marx doesn't seem to use the language of "determination" > in the same way that we tend to. We think in terms of closed > mathematical models with endogenous and exogenous variables, but I > don't think Marx did. I entirely agree. The next question then becomes: is Marx's logic consistent with modern mathematical models or does the formalization of Marx do an injustice to his theory (and if so, why?)? In solidarity, Jerry
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