re 4466 >Rakesh: > >My time is really scarce so only a brief comment on your #4464: OK, Alejandro, I'll make a brief point in which I think you will be interested > Or, do you think that >capital is advanced as a *labor-time* magnitude? (this is not a rethoric >question...) Of course not. > >If you are producing yarn under the average conditions and you advance $500 >in cotton representing 500 hours of past labor, this is the amount of >*labor time* which enters in the *value* of yarn, no matter if the labor >time objectified in this cotton during the past production cycle is 400 >hours. The part of the social cost corresponding to the new cotton to be >produced is what effectively capitalist pay for it at the beginning of the >circuit. This is the "past labor" transferred during the subsequent >produciton process. No way! Divide the world into machine producers and machine users. If the former sells above value due to some combination of the equalisation of profit rates and monopoly power, the machine users have simply paid a higher price than will be transferred by labor from these means to the final product. In essence, surplus value has been distributed upfront to the machine maker. If the price the machine users paid equalled the value which is transferred by labor from these machines, then their profits would not suffer. Under your interpretation, a crucial mechanism of global inequality is thus obscured. comradely, r
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