Andrew K in #4515: > Finally, Rakesh says something I can't respond to because I don't > understand it: > > : The mp to be used may have sold at t-3 at 10 for the quantity to be > : used up at t. But if the price for that quantity is now 30, then its > : value will be higher. I won't say 30 because the price of 30 includes > : some price-value discrepancy. But one can assume that at such a > : higher price, the value of the means of production are also now > : higher. It is that "current" value which the means of production will > : now transfer to the commodity output. > : > > Unfortunately I've deleted Rakesh's original message, so pending its appearance in the archive I'm working blind. Clearly he is referring to the question, previously aired on the list, about the re-valuation (in both senses -- i.e. Marxist and accounting -- except of course that some argue that these are/should be the same thing) of stocks. From the clip in Andrew's message I too can't grasp what you are driving at, Rakesh; perhaps you would give us your take on this ab initio? Julian
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