One of the things I don't get is how the usual way of correcting
Marx's transformation procedure applies when we assume that
fixed capital is *really* present. Here are a couple of things
I don't get.
1. Is the rate of profit or the RRI equal in all sectors after the
transformation?
2. How do you compute the values that are to be transformed from a given
set of physical quantities?
I suppose the underlying confusion is my lack of understanding how much of
what
is said about the transformation problem can be extended to an economy in
which fixed capital is *really* present. I'll skip any thoughts about moral
depreciation for now as that brings in still more issues.
John
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