Rakesh, you write >Gil, once it is concluded that surplus value arises from the use >value of a commodity, then surplus value is not appropriated as you >seem to imply in (if this is what you mean by "via") the circulation >of capital or what you call the circuit of capital. Even if surplus value doesn't *originate* in exchange, isn't it true that it must be appropriated through exchange, i.e. via the circuit of capital? Isn't this what Marx means at the end of Ch. 5 when he says "But can surplus-value originate anywhere else than in circulation, which is the sum total of all the mutual relations of commodity-owners?....It is therefore impossible that, outside the sphere of circulation, a producer of commodities can, without coming into contact with other commodity-owners, valorize value, and consequently transform money or commodities into capital. Capital cannot therefore arise from circulation, *and it is equally impossible for it to arise apart from circulation. It must have its origin both in circulation and not in circulation.*" [p. 268; Emphasis added]
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