Re Rakesh's [OPE-L:5123]: > Why > can't the infrastructure built by the state be a public form > of c? I don't understand the espression "public form of c". I would certainly agree that means of production can be owned by the state, but that doesn't mean that the form that it takes is as constant capital. C (and V) are part of a circuit of capital. To the extent that they are removed from the circuit then they cease to be c (and v). Instead, they take the form of money spent by the state on means of production and wage-labor. > Why can't its value be transferred through its use by labor to the > commodity output? What is the "commodity output"? Are "public goods" (produced by the state) to be considered commodities? I think not (even though they have a use-value). > This is how I understand Paul B's point; I'll let Paul B speak for himself. In solidarity, Jerry
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