Fred wrote in [6358]: > Marx's "law of value" is the assumption > that the new-value component of the price of commodities is proportional > to the quantity of current abstract labor require to produce these > commodities. Do you view the above definition as consistent or inconsistent with that given in the following? http://www.gn.apc.org/Reality/econ/metric/node1.html Do others on the list agree or disagree with the two definitions offered? In solidarity, Jerry
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