Re Rakesh's [6797]: > My point is that the claim that the demand for investment goods > derives from the demand for consumption goods seems to be a > euphemistic way of articulating the pretty conception that the aim > of capitalist production is the direct satisfaction of the > consumption of the producers. > This is why I am sensing something of a contradiction in this > chapter. Within the Keynesian system the demand for investment goods does not derive from the demand for consumption goods. Rather both investment demand and labor demand are derived demands dependent on the level of *aggregate* demand. In solidarity, Jerry
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