From: Rakesh Bhandari (rakeshb@stanford.edu)
Date: Tue Dec 03 2002 - 21:22:51 EST
re 8099 Paul, Why should we assume that a commodity's value or price of production is determined at the national level? Just because market prices in any one nation may seem to be strongly correlated (putting aside Kliman's objections) to values and (less so) prices of production as calculated on the basis of that nation's accounts does not mean that either determines (in any sense) market price. Yours, Rakesh
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