From: Rakesh Bhandari (rakeshb@STANFORD.EDU)
Date: Mon Nov 10 2003 - 06:56:23 EST
Did Marx's assumption in VPP that money wage struggles could be successful in raising the real wage depend in any way on his assumption of a commodity theory of money? I think Prabhat Patnaik suggests that his Weston critique did depend on this assumption. But I am not clear why he says so. Do others agree? Rakesh
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.5 : Tue Nov 11 2003 - 00:00:00 EST