From: dashyaf@EASYNET.CO.UK
Date: Sun Jan 04 2004 - 10:43:06 EST
Rakesh, Engels was using this example to show how the impact of Britain's world monopoly affected class relations in Britain. Britain, as Lenin pointed out, showed two characteristic features of imperialism in the latter half of the nineteenth century. With the advent of imperialism these conditions were reproduced in a few major capitalist countries. You know all this and so your reply is simply not a serious one and I have no intention of conducting further discussion with you at this level. David Yaffe At 09:20 03/01/04 -0800, you wrote: >>Engels: >> >>'The truth is this: during the period of England's industrial >>monopoly the English working class have, to a certain extent, shared >>in the benefits of the monopoly. These benefits were unequally >>parcelled out amongst them; the privileged minority pocketed most, >>but even the great mass had, at least, a temporary share now and >>then. and that is the reason why since the dying out of Owenism, >>there has been no socialism in England...' (1892) > >No advanced capitalist country now enjoys an industrial monopoly. >Hence, in terms of this argument the material basis for a labor >aristocracy should no longer exist. > >Rakesh
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