From: gerald_a_levy (gerald_a_levy@MSN.COM)
Date: Wed Feb 04 2004 - 11:12:41 EST
On second thought, some of my post from Sunday, February 1, on "s/v & c/v: macroeconomic categories only?" was confused. So, let me try again, expressing an issue as a question: * For those who hold that there is one rate of surplus value and that it is a macroeconomic rate, how do you show -- and empirically calculate -- the transfers of value and surplus value among capitalist firms both within an industry and in different branches of production? (This is a simplified posing of the question since there is _also_ the transfer of surplus value to non-industrial capitalists and to land owners. The transfers of surplus value to the state doesn't shouldn't pose a measurement problem) If it is not possible to show these transfers of surplus value, then why isn't -- or is it? -- merely a metaphor? I address the above to anyone who wants to answer it. In solidarity, Jerry
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