Re: [OPE-L] bubbles and Marxian theories of value

From: jmilios (jmilios@HOL.GR)
Date: Wed Feb 08 2006 - 20:07:04 EST


Hi Jerry,

Another QUESTION:
Bubbles reveal a deviation (quantitative difference) between VALUE and PRICE
or between PRICE of production and market PRICE?

In solidarity,

John

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From: OPE-L [mailto:OPE-L@SUS.CSUCHICO.EDU] On Behalf Of Jerry Levy
Sent: Wednesday, February 08, 2006 10:55 PM
To: OPE-L@SUS.CSUCHICO.EDU
Subject: [OPE-L] bubbles and Marxian theories of value


1. Bubbles occur  where "asset prices [are] unrelated to underlying
values."   For instance, a  "house price bubble can be defined
simply as a deviation of the market price  from the fundamental value
of the house."   Bubbles often arise  "when speculation in a commodity
or asset class causes the price to increase, thus producing more
speculation."

2. As we all know,  there is disagreement among Marxians with regard
to our understanding of value (understatement).   One area of contention
is whether it is meaningful to refer to *price-value divergences*:  there
are
those (including Marx) who refer to individual prices rising above or
falling
below values and there are those who claim essentially that there is an
identity  between value and price.  For instance, surplus approach theory
might  suggest that a dual accounting of price and value is "redundant";
value-form theory claims the money price is the sole autonomous
representation of value. This leads me to my ...

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*QUESTION*  :  how do those Marxian perspectives which don't
allow for price-value divergences explain the existence of bubbles?

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Background:
I sat next to Gary this afternoon at a workshop given by Ed Nell
and Davide Gualerzi at the New School and the topic of bubbles
came up in their presentation on "Transformational Growth in the
1990s."  This got me to thinking about the above and I asked Gary
afterwards if there was any literature from a surplus approach
perspective on bubbles.  He couldn't think of anything off-hand but
did mention John Eatwell.  I thought this was an odd reference
because -- last I heard -- John  had long since stopped being a
surplus approach theorist.  Am I mistaken about that Gary?

I _almost_ asked Ed and Davide what theory of value they were
(implicitly) using to explain bubbles since the definition that they
gave obviously presumed _some_  theory of "underlying value".
I  was thinking of asking them ...

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*What is the _theoretical_ explanation for bubbles?*

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In solidarity, Jerry


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