From: ope-admin@ricardo.ecn.wfu.edu
Date: Tue May 16 2006 - 23:18:23 EDT
----- Original Message -----
From: 이채언
Sent: Tuesday, May 16, 2006 10:55 PM
Subject: [RE]Re: [OPE-L] PUPL and the total profit/total surplus value
identity
Marx argues that the workers give free credit to the capitalist!
If a capitalist starts his business with borrowed money, does he advance
nothing at all?
Chai-on
--------------------------------------- [ Original Message ]
--------------------------------------
Sender : Jerry Levy < Gerald_A_Levy@MSN.COM >
Date : 2006-05-17 05:23:43
S u b j e c t : Re: [OPE-L] PUPL and the total profit/total surplus
value identity
> You suggest: There is support in Marx for the idea that these
[salaries of
> non-productive labor] are advanced, I think. After all, if the wages for
> productive workers are advanced (i.e. V is advanced) then why not also
for
> the wages of unproductive workers?
> My reply is that Marx's basic principle is that the wages are mainly
*not*
> "advanced", i.e. the worker contracts to work first, and gets paid later.
Jurriaan,
V and C are *advanced* in Marx's theory to the extent that --within
period analysis -- money to purchase means of production and
labour power is assumed to be spent before production in the new
period can commence.
I.e. in the formula
M - C {MP, LP} ... (P) .... C' - M'
M - C happens before P.
Of course, Marx was aware that the wages of workers are not, _in practice_,
(generally) advanced. In claiming that money capital for V is advanced I
think he was making a simplifying assumption.
I'm still thinking about the rest of your post.
In solidarity, Jerry
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