From: Philip Dunn (hyl0morph@YAHOO.CO.UK)
Date: Sat Jun 03 2006 - 13:00:10 EDT
So the value of workers' consumption does not transfer to the commodity produced by the capitalist? On Sat, 2006-06-03 at 12:14 -0400, glevy@PRATT.EDU wrote: > > So the value of workers' and capitalists' consumption does not transfer > > to the commodity produced? > > Hi Phil, > > The value of the goods consumed by the working class is, in a sense, > "transferred" to the value of labour power. The "commodity produced" is > labour-power. Consider the simple case of food. Without food, the value > of labour power is diminished to the point where it is nil (where workers > are unable to labor because of a lack of energy). In that sense, the > value of consumption goods is required to "maintain" (reproduce) the value > of the commodity labour-power because without that value then the > use-value of labour would diminish. > > In solidarity, Jerry ___________________________________________________________ All new Yahoo! Mail "The new Interface is stunning in its simplicity and ease of use." - PC Magazine http://uk.docs.yahoo.com/nowyoucan.html
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