From: Jurriaan Bendien (adsl675281@TISCALI.NL)
Date: Sat Nov 04 2006 - 11:16:31 EST
Jerry, I have some other work I must do just now, but will get back to you later about your remarks. But just think. If the wages of superintendence in production do not enter into the determination of the average rate of profit, and if unproductive labor should be counted as a deduction from profit, why then do Moseley and Shaikh include it in the total surplus-value component of the gross output? In balance sheets, managerial/supervisory labour compensation figures as a cost. If it isn't a cost, it must be an appropriation of revenue, i.e. an appropriation of surplus value. Or there is some argument that a secondary circuit of capital operates. If supervisory/managerial labour is partly productive, partly not, then part of it is variable capital and partly an appropriation of new surplus value. We do not really get anywhere with this I think by abstract logic, I think we would actually have to look at many specific categories of labour and how they are compensated. Jurriaan
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