From: ajit sinha (sinha_a99@YAHOO.COM)
Date: Tue Apr 10 2007 - 08:24:50 EDT
Paul, I see the problem. In the original I had used lamda (subscript x, etc.), where lamda stands for labour. The e-mail font has translated it as lx etc., which makes it look like 1. I'm sorry about it. I should have checked. Cheers, ajit sinha --- Paul Cockshott <wpc@DCS.GLA.AC.UK> wrote: > You have > > 10 lx + 20/3 ly + 10 l --> 30 lx (1') > 10 lx + 5 ly + 10 l --> 30 ly (2'), > > since ly = 2/3 there is a mistake here > you are multiplying by ly twice surely it should be > > 10 lx + 10 ly + 10 l --> 30 lx (1') > 10 lx + 5 ly + 10 l --> 30 ly (2'), > > substituting in 1 and 2/3 > > 10 + 20/3 + 10 -> 30 > 20 + 10/3 + 10 -> 20 > > which still is wrong and makes your point > -----Original Message----- > From: OPE-L [mailto:OPE-L@SUS.CSUCHICO.EDU] On > Behalf Of ajit sinha > Sent: 10 April 2007 12:11 > To: OPE-L@SUS.CSUCHICO.EDU > Subject: Re: [OPE-L] Question > > --- Allin Cottrell <cottrell@WFU.EDU> wrote: > > > That, I believe, is a mistake: it is warping the > > definition of > > value to match market price (hence my "dissolving" > > comment). > ________________________ > Its not only a mistake, it simply cannot be done. > Anybody who comes down from verbal statements and > tries to work out the meaning of the proposition > through mathematical example will quickly learn > that. > I have discussed three major ways by which the money > argument is brought by Marx in the value theory and > their failures in my paper,'Some Critical > Reflections > on Marx's Theory of Value', in Value and the World > Economy Today, (eds.) R. Westra and A. Zuege, > Palgrave, 2003. But not many people seem to have > seen > it. In any case, here is a short excerpt from the > paper that shows where Jerry might be coming from > and > why it does not work (I have taken one > interpretation > here but all other interpretation would fail in a > similar way): > > Another strategy of relating labor to commodity > exchange ratios is provided in Marx's famous letter > of > July 11, 1868, to Ludwig Kugelmann. In this letter > Marx writes, > > ... All that palaver about the necessity of proving > the > concept of value comes from complete ignorance both > of > the subject dealt with and of scientific method. > Every > child knows that a nation which ceased to work, I > will > not say for a year, but even for a few weeks, would > perish. Every child knows, too, that the volume of > products corresponding to the different needs > require > different and quantitatively determined amounts of > the > total labour of society. That this necessity of the > distribution of social labour in definite > proportions > cannot possibly be done away with by a particular > form > of social production but can only change the mode of > its appearance, is self-evident. Natural laws cannot > be abolished at all. What can change in historically > different circumstances is only the form in which > these laws assert themselves. And the form in which > this proportional distribution of labour asserts > itself, in a social system where the interconnection > of social labour manifests itself through the > private > exchange of individual products of labour, is > precisely the exchange value of these products. > (Marx > and Engels 1982, 196). > > This letter has been invoked most frequently in the > defense of Marx's 'labor theory of value'. > Unfortunately the meaning of the passage quoted > above > is not "self-evident". Leaving aside what every > child > might or might not know, let us analyze the > statement, > "And the form in which this proportional > distribution > of labour asserts itself, in a social system where > the > interconnection of social labour manifests itself > through the private exchange of individual products > of > labour, is precisely the exchange value of these > products." Does this mean that in a > commodity-producing economy the exchange ratios > between commodities are determined by taking the > ratios of total labor employed in various sectors? > This interpretation will have no problem only in a > situation where there are no means of production in > the system. In that case the ratios of total labor > spent in various sectors of the economy will be the > same as the embodied labor ratios of commodities. > This > case, however, is not interesting; not only because > it > is universally agreed that the so-called simple > labor > theory of value is valid in such cases, but more > importantly, a capitalist mode of production is > inconceivable without means of production. Once we > introduce means of production in the above given > interpretation, we find that the above proposition > comes to naught. > > For example, let us assume there are only two > sectors > in the economy producing two commodities x and y, > and > the system of production is given by: > 10x + 10y + 10l --> 30x (1) > 10x + 5y + 10l --> 30y (2), > > where l represents simple homogeneous direct labor > measured in terms of hours of labor. By the usual > embodied labor measure it can be easily verified > that > in this system of production the value of x is equal > to 7/8 hours of labor and the value of y is equal to > 3/4 hours of labor. Thus 1x should exchange for 7/6y > according to the simple labor theory of value. > > Now, let us interpret Marx's above statement in the > light of our given production system. Here 10 hours > of > labor in total is distributed to the production of > 10 > units of net output of x. Thus the value of x should > be equal to 1 hour of labor. Similarly, 10 hours of > total labor is distributed to producing 15 units of > net output of y. Thus the value of y should be equal > to 2/3 hours of labor. And the exchange value of the > two commodities turns out to be 1x for 3/2y. When we > impute these values of x and y so determined to our > means of production in the system, it turns out to > be: > > 10 lx + 20/3 ly + 10 l --> 30 lx (1') > 10 lx + 5 ly + 10 l --> 30 ly (2'), > > where lx and ly represent values of x and y > respectively. Since all the l's are simple > homogeneous > labor time they can all be added up and the arrows > should be replaced by the = sign. However, as it is > quite clear from (1') and (2'), in this case the > left > hand side of the equation will not be equal to the > right hand side of the equation. Hence defining the > labor values and the exchange values on the basis of > distribution of total labor not only gives a measure > different from Marx's own practice but, more > importantly, leads to contradiction when means of > production are measured consistently on their basis. > Thus any attempt to erect a defense of labor-values > on > this basis must lead to a dead end, and can only > create verbal confusion. > > Cheers, ajit sinha > > > > ________________________________________________________________________ > ____________ > It's here! Your new message! > Get new email alerts with the free Yahoo! Toolbar. > http://tools.search.yahoo.com/toolbar/features/mail/ > ____________________________________________________________________________________ Need Mail bonding? Go to the Yahoo! Mail Q&A for great tips from Yahoo! Answers users. http://answers.yahoo.com/dir/?link=list&sid=396546091
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.5 : Mon Apr 30 2007 - 00:00:16 EDT