From: GERALD LEVY (gerald_a_levy@MSN.COM)
Date: Sat Dec 08 2007 - 13:46:11 EST
<http://www.transparency.org/news_room/in_focus/2007/gcb_2007#key> Hi Jurriaan: Interesting site. I looked around there a bit, including the 'FAQ", out of curiosity to see if there were answers to the questions that came to mind concerning _who_ paid the bribes (especially which _classes_) and in what _amounts_. The methodology utilized - that of a public opinion poll - might underestimate the extent to which capitalists pay bribes rather than primarily the poor. Families would certainly be knowledgeable if they paid bribes, but might not be as knowledgeable about how common the practice is in groups to which they do not belong. Some musings ... I suppose, conceptually, one could treat bribes paid by capitalists as capitalists as faux frais of production. How would one treat bribes paid by wage workers and the non-working poor? It might be tempting to think of it representing a reduction of the customary standard of living of workers but what if paying the bribes results in a _higher_ standard of living? In that case, value might be going from working families to state employees and then be transferred back again by the state to the working families? Perhaps 'bribes' is the wrong word to use here - maybe 'extortion' would be a better one: 'extortion' of working families by e.g. the police might not result in _any_ benefit other than a ceasing of harassment, malicious prosecution and imprisonment, etc. If that's the case, then one might be better thinking of this corruption as a form of organized crime (in many cases, the police could be thought of as a criminal gang). In solidarity, Jerry
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