RE: [OPE] peanut butter value-form theory

From: GERALD LEVY <gerald_a_levy@msn.com>
Date: Mon Apr 13 2009 - 19:11:38 EDT

>> In any event, yes, assume that the orange in one hand
>> was not cultivated. It's also quite easy to envision the two oranges being
>> identical in size, texture, appearance, and taste. Now what?
> Now you have eliminated the need for agricultural labor.

Hi Paula:

For one orange, yes, agricultural labor is not required.

>> I gather that you also would say, then, that the state doesn't own any
>> means of production?
> Not at all - consider (again) PDVSA.

I think the subject of rent is relevant. To lay claim to a portion of the
surplus value which is produced is not the same thing as producing surplus
value.

>> {NB: There are some commodities which have dual uses: e.g. the same model
>> of computer which is used as a means of consumption by individuals
>> [a home computer] can also be means of production if purchased by a
>> capitalist firm}.
> Also, a capitalist firm can use one computer as a means of production (eg in
> computer-aided product design) and another computer unproductively (eg in
> the legal, marketing or accounting departments). The second computer is only
> a means of consumption. If, instead, the legal, marketing or accounting
> functions are outsourced to independent companies in the so-called service
> sector, the computers used by those firms remain means of consumption only.

The distinction between constant capital and variable capital does not
exactly map onto the distinction between means of production and means of
consumption. Also, there's faux frais of production.

In solidarity, Jerry_______________________________________________
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Received on Mon Apr 13 19:15:59 2009

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