RE: [OPE] Peer production and abundance

From: Paul Cockshott <wpc@dcs.gla.ac.uk>
Date: Fri Jan 08 2010 - 06:09:08 EST

Dave Z
If the 'open source' mode of production is to become the dominant mode,
the question arises: what share of the total output of an economy could
actually be produced in this way?
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I am not a spokesperson for the Oekonux people, but they do seem to be attempting to work out a political economy of peer production. I dont think that they have actually published much empirical econometric work on it though.

How would you measure the share of the total output of the economy that was being produced in the open source model?
It is hard to capture it using standard statistics as by definition, free software goods are not counted in national accounts.

The University of Glasgow, charity number SC004401
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Received on Fri Jan 8 06:17:06 2010

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