[OPE] labour output

If people are making different use values their productivities are not comparable and the concept has nomeaning. Productivity is always relative to the average for a given trade. The average productivity of each trade is what the Soviets called the NORM, and is by definition =1

--- original message ---
From: "GERALD LEVY" <gerald_a_levy@msn.com>
Subject: Re: [OPE] Question about books that are sound introductions to economics
Date: 21st September 2010
Time: 4:30:10 pm

> Well if there is no obvious difference in two peoples productivity the parsimonious assumption must be that their productivity is the same, > so I don't see that there really any problem here.

Hi Paul C:

Problems abound with productivity measurement:
For example, when comparing the productivity of skilled to unskilled workers,
one has to remember that the output produced by each group is different and,
indeed, the output is different amongst differing classifications of skilled
workers.
Then, there's the question of output where there is joint production and varied
product mix at the same locations.

How, for instance, does one compare the productivity of an electrician at an auto
assembly plant with that of an assembly worker at the same plant who installs cruise
controls on on only some motors?

Or, how does one compare the productivity of a boiler repairperson who might service
many different plants producing completely different outputs with the productivity
of unskilled workers at each of those plants?

Or, how does one compare the productivity of a truck driver who hauls apples and
light bulbs with the productivity of unskilled apple-picking farm workers, unskilled
assembly workers in the light bulb plant, tractor repair people for the farm, and
assembly repair workers in the light bulb plant?

How is the productivity of service workers measured compared to the productivity of
auto assembly workers and toolmakers?

Etc.
Etc.
Etc.

In solidarity, Jerry
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Received on Tue Sep 21 14:04:03 2010