Re: [OPE] Reply to critics

 Hi Paula

> Maybe so; but then does he mean by 'purely social'? As opposed to 'purely
> natural', for example? 'By arbitrary convention'? Or what?
>
> There's no "maybe" about it. Marx is very explicit that labor-value is not
a physical property.

Some properties are not reducible to physical properties. For
example, whether a person is married or divorced is not a physical property
of that person. It is a `purely social' property in the sense that it is
manifested in a social practice. Marx asks us to consider that labor-value
is a social property in the sense that it manifests in the social practice
of generalized commodity exchange.

Hope this begins to answer your question.

-Ian.

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Received on Thu Sep 30 19:33:36 2010