Nitzan & Bichler excerpt their critique of the emprical data on
price-value correlation under this link in their reply to Cockshott:
One reason they reject the data is that in many empirical studies
labor-values are inferred from input-output prices. So they charge
that the approach is circular. I am not sure that follows, I would
need to think about it. However, I think that in Dave's empirical work
he actually got hold of independent labor hours worked (from
government studies), and found the same close correlation. So no
circularity here. Is that correct Dave? Or do I misremember?
-Ian.
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Received on Wed Dec 8 19:52:06 2010
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