Paul C. asks: "What if competition does not" tend to equalize profits per unit of capital advanced. "What if capitals in fact earn [sic] profits proportional
to the number of workers they employ?"
My answer is that, if this is a "fact," it still needs to be explained
theoretically. And unless one can adduce some unalterable, necessary
reason why this must be the case, then a theory that holds to the
determination of value by labor-time must still be able to account
theoretically for instances in which profits received are disproportional
to the number of workers employed.
Andrew