Further to my last post, while I don't think that there is any doubt what
Marx meant in Vol 1, it is of interest to consider what remains of the
argument of Vol.1 if prices are not proportional to money-values. I've said
something about this in CJE 1994. This relates to 'cards on the table', and
I'm happy to go with the first part of my 804. And what about VLP and wages
as a subject?
Also only Alan has responded to my query about productive and unproductive
labour, referring me to Shaik and Tonak. Is the query too far afield from
present concerns?
I am against 'value and socialism' until we have greater clarity on value
and capitalism.
Simon
Simon Mohun,
Dept of Economics,
Queen Mary and Westfield College,
Mile End Road,
London E1 4NS,
UK
Telephone: 0171-975-5089
Fax: 0181-983-3580