Yes, Paul C. is right: my output price equation assumed that the profit
rate is uniform. Sorry. What I *meant* to say was that this was the
equation system for prices of production. If we don't presume uniform
profitablity, and there's no reason to, then the value and general profit
rate equations remain unchanged, the *individual* prices depend on the
distribution of total profit, but total price and profit still equal
total value and surplus-value, respectively.
Andrew Kliman