[OPE-L:1099] Re: does price affect value

akliman@acl.nyit.edu (akliman@acl.nyit.edu)
Sat, 17 Feb 1996 10:51:01 -0800

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Andrew here, replying to Allin's ope-l 1093:

It doesn't matter in the least whether one *explicitly* stipulates that
the input and output values (prices) of a commodity are equal or whether
one "consider[s]" any change over the period to be retroactive or
whether one "defines" values (or production prices) as stationary.

However you choose to think of it, whenever the vector of values (prices)
of means of production (and perhaps wage goods) advanced at the start
of the period is stipulated to be equal to the vector of outputs' values
(prices), then labor-time becomes irrelevant to the determination of the
commodities' values (prices). Didn't you know that this is what I
meant? Do you really consider this a "secondary issue"?

And why is this notion of Torrens having assumed unchanged production
conditions cropping up again? Do you have any shred of evidence for
this claim? I'm trying to hunt down his book, but based on what Marx
quotes and how Marx treats the issue, I strongly doubt that Torrens
assumed any such thing.

I said I'd be off the net until Tueday, but I had a bit of time today.
After today, I'll be off until Tuesday.

Andrew Kliman