John asked in [OPE-L:1548]:
> 3. When we speak of the falling rate of profit, about what rate of profit
> are we talking? The equilibrium rate? Andrew's? The "ex ante" one?
I thought Marx was pretty clear: its the "law of the tendency for the
*general* rate of profit to decline" (emphasis added, JL).
I don't interpret the general r as either the "equilibrium rate" or the
"ex ante" one. Do others agree or disagree?
> That we are asking these questions in 1996 is scary.
It's my turn for a question:
-- Could you please explain the "scary" dimensions of the questions and
how that relates to 1996 and before?
In OPE-L Solidarity,
Jerry