Dear Gil,
In my understanding, capitalist property relationship is based on the
property as the result of other's labour, which should be distinguished
from the personal property relationship based on one's own labour.
Feudal ownership is based on conquer (not on the serf's own labour).
Capitalist relation of exploitation would differ from the precapitalist
relation of appropriation. The former is based on the exchange relation
with equal and free terms.
Am I wrong?
Chai-on Lee