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=BA=B8=B3=BD=C0=CC: =B0=E6=BF=B5=B4=EB=C7=D0 =
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=C8=AD=BF=E4=C0=CF =BF=C0=C8=C4 6:42
=B9=DE=B4=C2=C0=CC: 'ope-l@anthrax.ecst.csuchico.edu'
=C1=A6=B8=F1: RE: [OPE-L:1718] Re: =20
Chai-on said:
-------
No. PCP cannot be a dominating mode of production in a social formation
because commodity exchange is to be ruled by a certain social process=20
which
determines the reduction coefficient of heterogeneous to homogeneous=20
labors.
A dominating mode of production determines the frame of reference for =
the
reduction of skilled, complex labors to unskilled, simple ones.
=20
Paul replied:
-----
It all depends what you mean by dominant. Your definition seems
too specific to commodity production. In discussing the transintion
from slavery to feudalism under the colonate would your definition=20
apply? I think not.
By dominant I meant simply that it employed the greater
part of the social labour.
Chai-on rereplies:
-----------------
The terminology of "Dominant" should not follow ** the demographic =
majority rule.** The point is the relationship between distinct modes =
of production. PCP cannot rule other modes of production on account of =
its own weak point. The weak point is this: commodity production =
requires a reduction principle of skilled, complex labors to unskilled, =
simple ones. The reduction principle, according to Marx, is determined =
by a social process. IMO, the social process is the frame of reference =
derived from other mode of production, not from pcp's own mode of =
production. It is to be imposed from without. =20
One more point towards Paul's position;
I should reject such a demographic majority rule. The commanders are of =
course of the minority but they rule dominantly the majority. The =
qualitative relationship between different modes of production is to be =
investigated. Today, electoronic industry is dominant but is still =
employing relatively small portion of the existent labor-powers. =20
Cheers,
Chai-on
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