>To Paul C.:
>
>How do you impute labor time to individual commodities in conditions of
>joint production, where the imputation is not unique? Is it OK in your
>view to impute the labor time to the bundle of outputs, or does the
>theory require some method of disambiguating the labor time imputation?
>
>Duncan
>
The individual commodities then have no unambiguous value, only the
joint product has.
Paul Cockshott
wpc@cs.strath.ac.uk
http://www.cs.strath.ac.uk/CS/Biog/wpc/index.html