Paul Cockshott said on Friday, April 19, in[OPE-L:1824]said,
We are getting closer to an objective definition, but you will need to =
tighten it. Usurers capital under feudalism would, on your definition =
above, be dominant. =20
Chai-on replies,
Yes, it would if the surplus appropriated by the feudal lords were =
absorbed by the usurers, if the feudal tributes were transferred to the =
hands of the usurers. It was one of the reasons the feudal mode of =
production was to be in the wane. With the collapse of the feudal mode, =
however, the usuery was also to collapse because the latter relied upon =
the former. =20
In solidarity,
Chai-on: conlee@chonnam.chonnam.ac.kr
wpc@cs.strath.ac.uk
http://www.cs.strath.ac.uk/CS/Biog/wpc/index.html