Costas:
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Analogously, if the value of the money commodity together with the
value of other commodities provide am anchor for money prices but
only through a real process of destruction of capital values etc, why
couldn't this real process also take place (transformed, to be sure)
when money is valueless?
Chai-on:
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I cannot imagine what you mean by "the real process of destruction
of capital values" in the above. Could you explain it somewhat detail?
With regards,
Chai-on