Duncan wrote in [OPE-L:2511]:
> Since your position is that embodied labor coefficients are very highly
> correlated with market prices, and that is what justifies reference to
> them in empirical work, it seems that you come out operationally pretty
> much where I do: that we can, either exactly, in my view, or to a very
> good approximation, in your view, use market data to measure the critical
> Marxian parameters.
A couple of questions:
(1) Could you explain more what you see as the "operational" similarity
between your conception and Paul C's (and Allin's)? Are you simply
suggesting that you agree with the project of empirical measurement of
Marxian categories using national income and I/O data or are you
suggesting a more fundamental agreement?
(2) I don't understand your distinction that we can use market data to
measure the "critical Marxian parameters" -- *"exactly"* (rather than as a
"very good approximation"). Could you please explain exactly what exactly
means in this context?
In OPE-L Solidarity,
Jerry
PS1: What has become of the person who started this thread -- Alejandro?
PS2: Seeya in a couple of weeks. Regards to all.