In reply to Allin's ope-l 3077, in which he wrote "didn't Andrew berate me
(legitimately) just a week or two ago for appealing to results on the maximum
rate of profit as any sort of guide to the behaviour of the actual rate of
profit (then, in the context of Okishio, Roemer and all)?"
My dictionary says "berate" means "to chide vehemently." I didn't mean either
to chide or to be vehement, but to correct a misunderstanding firmly and
decisively.
I still contend that one cannot infer anything about the movement in the
actual rate of profit from the movement of the maximum rate alone. I don't
think my post that defended v = 0 as a limiting case did so. This does not
prevent a study of the maximum rate from being instructive in other respects.
Andrew Kliman